Bills Digest no. 114 2005–06
ASIO Legislation Amendment Bill 2006
WARNING:
This Digest was prepared for debate. It reflects the legislation as introduced
and does not canvass subsequent amendments. This Digest does not have
any official legal status. Other sources should be consulted to determine
the subsequent official status of the Bill.
CONTENTS
Passage History
Purpose
Background
Main Provisions
Concluding Comments
Endnotes
Contact Officer & Copyright Details
Passage History
ASIO Legislation Amendment
Bill 2006
Date introduced: 29 March 2006
House: House of Representatives
Portfolio: Attorney-General
Commencement: The Bill's
formal provisions commence on Royal Assent. The remainder commence on
the day after Royal Assent.
To respond to recommendations made by the Parliamentary
Joint Committee on ASIO, ASIS and DSD (‘the PJC’).(1) The PJC
recently reviewed ASIO’s terrorism-related questioning and detention powers.
These powers are found in Division 3, Part III of the Australian Security
Intelligence Organisation Act 1979 (‘the ASIO Act’).
Division 3, Part III was inserted into the ASIO Act by the Australian
Security Intelligence Organisation Legislation Amendment (Terrorism) Act
2003. The division adds to the suite of exceptional powers that Parliament
has entrusted to ASIO.(2)
A Bill to add Division 3, Part III to the ASIO Act—the Australian Security
Intelligence Organisation Legislation Amendment (Terrorism) Bill 2002
(‘the 2002 Bill’)—was first introduced into the House of Representatives
on 21 March 2002 as part of a package of anti-terrorism legislation.(3)
As introduced, the 2002 Bill enabled incommunicado
detention of non-suspects (both adults and children) for up to 48 hours,
with potential for indefinite renewal of the warrants under which they
were held. Detention warrants were to be issued by the Executive not a
judicial officer. Contact with a lawyer was not guaranteed. There was
no provision for the legislation to be subject to review or sunsetting.
In 2002, the PJC described the Bill as
‘the most controversial piece of legislation ever reviewed by the Committee.’(4)
The 2002 Bill was referred to the PJC.
Together with the other anti-terrorism bills, it was also referred to
the Senate Committee on Legal and Constitutional Affairs. Numerous legislative
amendments were recommended by both committees.(5) An amended
2002 Bill passed the House of Representatives
and was further amended in the Senate. The House of Representatives accepted
some of the Senate’s amendments but negatived others that the Senate continued
to press. As a result the Bill was laid
aside (becoming one of a number of potential double dissolution triggers
at that time).
A second Bill—the Australian Security
Intelligence Organisation Legislation Amendment (Terrorism) Bill 2002
[No. 2]—was introduced into the House of Representatives on 20 March 2003.(6)
This Bill was finally passed after further
amendment on 26 June 2003 and commenced operation on 23 July 2003.
During the course of its passage through Parliament, amendments were
made that, to an extent, refined and clarified the legislation and ameliorated
some of its more draconian aspects. Among other things, amendments were
made affecting the legislation’s application to children. The maximum
period of detention was set at 168 hours;(7) provision was
made for protocols to govern the custody, detention and interview process;
criminal penalties were introduced for officials who breach safeguards;
ASIO was required to include warrant statistics in its annual report;
warrants are issued by judicial officers;(8) the PJC was tasked
with reviewing the legislation and Division 3, Part III was sunsetted
3 years after its commencement. A requirement that a subject’s lawyer
be approved by the Attorney-General and security cleared was also removed.
Division 3, Part III has been amended five times since the passage of
the Australian Security Intelligence Organisation Legislation Amendment
(Terrorism) Act 2003.(9) Major amendments were effected
by the ASIO Legislation Amendment Act 2003. This Act extended the
maximum period of questioning when a subject uses an interpreter from
24 hours to 48 hours and inserted new non-disclosure offences that operate
during the currency of a Division 3 warrant and for two years after the
warrant has expired.
With the above provisions in mind, Division 3, Part III can be summarised
as follows. It enables ASIO to obtain a warrant from an issuing authority(10)
that allows adults who are not suspected of a terrorism offence but may
have information about terrorist activities to be questioned for
extended periods. They can be detained if there are reasonable
grounds for believing that they may alert someone involved in a terrorism
offence, may not appear for questioning or may destroy or damage evidence.
The statutory regime also applies to children aged between 16 and 18 years
if they are suspected of involvement in a terrorism offence. Questioning
takes place before a prescribed authority who oversees the process.(11)
The regime is unprecedented in Australia
and, arguably, in the common law democracies with which Australia
is often compared (the United Kingdom,
Canada, New
Zealand and the United States).(12)
Division 3, Part III contains oversight, complaint and other provisions
designed to protect the subjects of Division 3 warrants. Of particular
importance are provisions relating to prescribed authorities, the Inspector-General
of Intelligence and Security (IGIS) and the Commonwealth Ombudsman. The
prescribed authority oversees questioning and the IGIS may be present
at questioning and communicate any concerns about impropriety or illegality
to the prescribed authority. Both the IGIS and the Ombudsman can investigate
complaints from the subjects of warrants. Further details about the roles
of the prescribed authority, IGIS and Ombudsman can be found in the Main
Provisions section of this Digest.
However, some Division 3, Part III protections have significant limitations.
For instance, while undergoing questioning or when in detention a person
is not assured of being able to contact a lawyer. And even if present
when questioning occurs, a lawyer is unable to represent his or her client
in any meaningful way. Further, the subject of a warrant is liable to
criminal penalties for failing to answer questions or produce documents;
neither derivative use immunity or immunity from civil proceedings apply
to information they are compelled to give;(13) and they face
criminal penalties if they breach the non-disclosure provisions of the
legislation (for instance, if they disclose that they are the subject
of a Division 3 warrant while that warrant is still in force).
The PJC is established under the Intelligence Services Act 2001.
Its functions are set out in section 29 of that Act. They include reviewing
the administration and expenditure of Australia’s
intelligence agencies,(14) reporting on matters relating to
the intelligence agencies that are referred by the responsible Minister
or either House of Parliament, reviewing the 2002 package of anti-terrorism
legislation and reviewing Division 3, Part III. The PJC’s functions do
not include reviewing the operations or operational methods of the intelligence
agencies or inquiring into individual complaints about those agencies.
At the time of its inquiry into Division 3, Part III the PJC had seven
members appointed by the Prime Minister.(15) Three of these
members came from the Senate and four from the House of Representatives.
Four members were appointed from Government ranks and three from the Opposition.
Opposition members are appointed on the advice of the Leader of the Opposition.
PJC staff are security-cleared to Australian Secret Intelligence Service
officer level TSPV.(16)
The Australian Security Organisation Legislation Amendment
(Terrorism) Act 2003 requires the PJC to review the operations, effectiveness
and implications of Division 3, Part III by 22 January 2006 and report
its findings to the Attorney-General and Parliament.
In the course of its review, the PJC held four public hearings, five
in camera hearings and considered 113 submissions. Six of the submissions
are labelled secret, confidential or security-in-confidence. ASIO, the
Attorney-General’s Department, the Australian Federal Police (AFP) appeared
at both public and in camera hearings. Lawyers for the subjects of warrants,
one issuing authority and one prescribed authority attended in camera
hearings. The Committee did not hear evidence from any subjects of Division
3 warrants. However, it was provided with copies of video tapes and transcripts
of questioning for the first eight Division 3 warrants. The PJC’s
report notes that its request to see tapes and transcripts of a further
six warrants was refused.
The Committee’s report was completed in November 2005. It was tabled
in the Senate on 30 November 2005 and in the House of Representatives
on 5 December 2005.
In brief, the PJC concluded that the Division 3, Part III has been useful
in monitoring people who might be inclined or induced to participate in
terrorist activities. It found that Division 3, Part III powers had been
used lawfully and administered professionally. However, it considered
that these extraordinary powers should not be regarded as a ‘permanent
part of the Australian legal landscape.’(17) And it recommended
‘a range of additional measures [set out in 19 recommendations] if Division
3 of Part III of the ASIO Act is to continue to have effect beyond 23
July 2006.’(18)
The Government’s response to the PJC’s recommendations was tabled on
29 March 2005 during the first reading stage of the ASIO Legislation Amendment
Bill 2006. It agreed to six recommendations, agreed in part to a further
six recommendations and rejected seven recommendations. PJC recommendations
and Government responses to them can also be broken down according to
their classification in the PJC’s report:
- recommendations relating to the questioning and detention regime—3
recommendations—1 rejected; 2 accepted
- legal representation and access to complaints mechanisms—11
recommendations—4 accepted, 5 accepted in part, 2 rejected
- implications for democratic and liberal processes—4 recommendations—none
accepted
- continuation of the legislation—1 recommendation—accepted
in part.
Given the criminal penalties that apply to breaches of the secrecy provisions
of Division 3, Part III, it is not surprising that there is little publicly
available information about how the regime operates. Non-disclosure offences
and legislation governing the PJC’s operations raised a number of issues
for the Committee, its inquiry and its reporting processes. These included:
- the dearth of publicly available information about the regime’s operation
- whether the secrecy provisions restricted or inhibited the evidence
that could be presented to the PJC
- what information could be published by the PJC.
A Background Paper issued by the PJC listed a number of matters the committee
might wish to examine. These included how the legislation operates, who
has been subjected to ASIO’s special powers and what was achieved through
their questioning, what problems have been encountered with the legislation,
what aspects of the legislation have not been used, and what complaints
have been made about the legislation. In his submission to the PJC, Dr
Greg Carne from the University
of Tasmania wrote that the effect of the non-disclosure offences is that:
… literacy about case and policy issues is diminished
and information not threatening national security is withheld from public
and professional groups necessary to make comprehensive submissions
to this inquiry.(19)
Some statistical information about warrants is published in ASIO’s annual
report. Subject to the non-disclosure requirements of Division 3, Part
III comments about the operation of the regime can be found in annual
reports and other public commentary made by the IGIS. On occasion, leaks
appear to have alerted the media to planned ASIO raids.(20)
Concerned that the non-disclosure offences in Division 3, Part III might
inhibit or prevent the subjects of warrants and their lawyers making submissions
to the Committee, the PJC sought legal advice. That legal opinion concluded
that witnesses could give evidence to the inquiry without contravening
Division 3’s secrecy provisions and that such witnesses are protected
by the Parliamentary Privileges Act 1987.(21) As stated
above, the PJC obtained evidence from one prescribed authority, one issuing
authority and three lawyers for the subjects of warrants as well as from
ASIO, the IGIS, AFP and Attorney-General’s Department. It viewed tapes
and transcripts of questioning for the first eight Division 3 warrants.
Nevertheless, there are limits on the information that can be made publicly
available by the PJC. Subsection 20(2) of the Intelligence Services
Act 2001 requires the Attorney-General to approve the holding of any
public hearings. Clause 6 of Schedule 1 of the Intelligence Services Act
provides that evidence or documents produced in private session cannot
be disclosed without the permission of the agency head (where the evidence
is given by a staff member of an intelligence agency) or, in any other
case, without the permission of the person who gave the evidence or produced
the document.
Further, clause 7 sets out restrictions on disclosures to Parliament.
Its effect is that PJC reports must be cleared by the responsible Minister
before they are tabled in Parliament. In the case of the PJC’s report,
there were two instances where agreement could not be reached about whether
material should be omitted or included. As a result, one sentence in the
report was removed under protest from the Committee and a table was also
deleted. In the PJC’s view neither constituted a national security concern.
Aside from ASIO statistics and reporting by the IGIS, what can be disclosed
about the operation of the regime is described in Chapter 1 of the PJC’s
report. At the time of the PJC’s inquiry, no-one had been detained under
a Division 3 warrant and no children aged between 16 and 18 years had
been the subject of warrants. As at August 2005, 14 questioning warrants
had been issued applying to 13 subjects (one of whom was the subject of
two warrants), the total questioning time for the 14 warrants being 137
hours and 38 minutes.
In all, more than 10 people may be present during questioning. This includes
ASIO officers and/or officers from the Australian Government Solicitor’s
Office who conduct questioning, the prescribed authority, IGIS, police,
ASIO advisers, the subject and their lawyer, and transcription and audio-visual
service personnel.(22)
At the time the PJC’s report was written 25 people, all former judges,
had been appointed as prescribed authorities. Six issuing authorities
had been appointed. The Attorney-General had not rejected any request
that an application be made for a warrant and no issuing authority had
refused to issue a warrant.
Division 3, Part III enables the IGIS or his staff to be present when
a person is being questioned or taken into custody. The practice of the
IGIS appears to be that either he or one of his senior staff attends on
the first day of questioning. A decision is then made about whether to
attend on subsequent days. In his submission to the PJC, the IGIS suggested
a number of amendments to Division 3, Part III but emphasised that he
did ‘not wish to convey a negative impression of its use to date.’ In
relation to what he and his officers witnessed, the IGIS has said:
The subjects of the warrants have, in the experience
of this office to date, all been treated humanely (as required by section
34J). The questioning has been conducted in an appropriate manner and
the individuals who have been the subject of questioning have been accorded
dignity and respect. On some occasions this has been in the face of
abusive or evasive comments—nonetheless professionalism was maintained
by ASIO and Australian Government Solicitor staff involved.(23)
While not disputing that their clients were treated appropriately, lawyers
who gave evidence to the PJC said they doubted that questioning was directed
at determining whether their clients had information relevant to a terrorism
offence or planned attacks. Rather, they believed that the Division 3,
Part III regime is being used to supplement police powers ‘made possible
by the lack of a derivative use immunity and by the presence at the questioning
of police who seemed to be investigating police, on one occasion State
police apparently concerned with a non-terrorist related matter.’(24)
Other complaints made by lawyers related to the length of questioning
(despite the fact that it was within legal limits) and inability to object
to questions and adequately represent or advise their clients. There were
also some complaints of requests for interpreters being refused.(25)
Commenting on the outcomes and usefulness of the Division 3, Part III
regime, the PJC revealed that at the time of writing 15 charges had been
laid in relation to 4 people as a result of questioning warrants being
issued.(26) As stated earlier, a table of charges laid was
removed from the PJC’s report at the request of ASIO, although the PJC
‘did not accept that the information contained in the table constituted
a national security concern or was prejudicial to prospective trials.’(27)
This Digest examines the ASIO Legislation Amendment Bill
2006 in the light of the PJC’s recommendations. The Main Provisions section
includes commentary on PJC recommendations that were wholly or partly
accepted by the Government. Recommendations that were rejected by the
Government are described in the Concluding Comments section.
The expression, ‘Division 3 warrant’, is used to describe warrants issued
under Division 3, Part III of the ASIO Act. The term, ‘section 34D warrant’,
is also used in the PJC’s report and submissions to the PJC inquiry.
Schedule 1 restructures most of existing Division 3, Part III
of the ASIO Act and re-numbers some provisions. The restructure is designed
to give effect to a PJC recommendation that a clear distinction should
be made between questioning-only warrants and warrants that
allow for both questioning and detention (recommendation 2).
There appear to be few differences between existing Division 3, Part
III and Schedule 1. Some minor changes are as follows:
- current legislation provides for a statement of procedures (or ‘Protocol’)
that sets conditions for the treatment of detainees.(28)
The Bill makes the statement of procedures
a legislative instrument. It must be registered and tabled in Parliament.(29)
However, it is not subject to disallowance or sunsetting (new section
34C).
- current legislation provides that the PJC must be briefed orally
or in writing about the statement of procedures ‘whether before or after
presentation of the statement to each House of Parliament’. The Bill
provides that the Director-General must brief the PJC on the statement
‘after it is approved by the Minister’ (new subsection 34C(6)).
However, it is silent about whether the briefing needs to occur before
or after the statement is tabled in Parliament.
- Schedule 1 clarifies that a person cannot be detained after
someone exercising authority under the warrant informs the prescribed
authority that ASIO does not have any further questions (new paragraph
34K(5)(i)).
Part 2 of Schedule 1 amends relevant references in the ASIO Act,
Crimes Act 1914 and Foreign Evidence Act 1994 so that they
reflect the changes in numbering and terminology effected by Part 1.
Item 16 provides that Division 3, Part III as it currently exists
will continue to apply in specified circumstances. Examples include where
a request for a warrant has been made to an issuing authority or a warrant
has been issued before the commencement of the Bill
as an Act.
Items 17-20 are transitional items and provide that existing ASIO
regulations, relevant rules of court, approvals for people to exercise
authority under Division 3 warrants, and the Protocol will continue in
force when the ASIO Legislation Amendment Bill 2006 is enacted. Item
21 is also a transitional item. It applies to ASIO annual reports.
Schedule 2 contains the Government’s responses to the PJC’s recommendations.
The PJC’s recommendations and the Government’s responses to them are described
below.
Division 3, Part III of the ASIO Act gives a number of powers to the
police (federal, State and Territory). These powers include:
- power to conduct an ordinary search or a strip search of a person
detained under a warrant(30)
- the use of necessary and reasonable force when taking a person into
custody under a warrant, preventing their escape and detaining such
a person(31)
- entering premises in order to take a person into custody under a
warrant,(32) and
- making arrangements for a person taken into custody under a warrant
to be immediately brought before a prescribed authority for questioning(33)
Division 3, Part III allows complaints to be made to the Commonwealth
Ombudsman in relation to the actions of the AFP. Additionally, it requires
a person to be told of their right to complain to the Commonwealth Ombudsman.(34)
It also provides that the general prohibition on contacting anyone while
in custody or detention does not apply to contact with the Ombudsman.(35)
In practice, roles performed by State and Territory police under Division
3, Part III include the provision of ‘watchhouse or custodial services.’(36)
State police may also be present during questioning.(37) However,
despite the roles that State and Territory police can and do play, there
is no statutory right of complaint to State and Territory bodies that
investigate complaints against State and Territory police.
The PJC recommended that:
… an explicit right of access to the State Ombudsman,
or other relevant State body, with jurisdiction to receive and investigate
complaints against individuals about the conduct of State police officers
be provided. (recommendation 12)(38)
The Government accepted this recommendation. Recommendation 12
is implemented by items 4 and 14 of Schedule 10.(39)
Additionally:
- item 9 requires a prescribed authority to inform the subject
of a warrant of their right to complain to a State or Territory agency
that deals with complaints against the police
- item 25 adds to the list of ‘permitted disclosures’ under
Division 3. ‘Permitted disclosures’ are exceptions to the regime’s secrecy
obligations. The effect of item 25 is that making a complaint
to a State or Territory complaints agency and investigating that complaint
will be ‘permitted disclosures.’
- item 28 makes an amendment similar to item 25 in relation
to complaints by children to State or Territory complaints agencies
and the investigation of those complaints.
The PJC recommended that Division 3 be amended to ‘achieve a clearer
understanding of the connection between the period of detention and the
allowable period of questioning’ (recommendation 3).(40)
The Government accepted recommendation 3, agreeing to amend the
legislation to ‘clarify how the time periods under each of the warrants
operate to remove any confusion between periods of detention and questioning,
and to set out how time involving questioning or detention under the warrant
is recorded.’(41)
Items 7 and 8 give effect to the Government’s response.
As the Attorney-General’s Department’s submission points out:
The main role of the prescribed authority is to supervise
the questioning of the subject of a warrant, inform the person of their
rights, and ensure that the terms of the warrant, the ASIO Act and the
Protocol are complied with.(42)
Examples of the prescribed authority’s functions and powers include:
- explaining the warrant to the subject of the warrant, informing them
of what the warrant authorises ASIO to do, their avenues of complaint
and judicial review, and who they are permitted to contact(43)
- directing that a person be detained
- deciding that an interpreter should be provided to a person who is
appearing for questioning(44)
- deciding whether questioning is to continue under the warrant(45)
and setting breaks between periods of questioning(46)
- directing that a person be released from detention once further questioning
is statutorily prohibited(47)
- authorising the police to conduct a strip search on a detainee(48)
- providing a reasonable opportunity for a person’s lawyer to advise
them during breaks in questioning,(49) and
- directing that a person’s lawyer be removed if they are disrupting
questioning.(50)
The PJC recommended that:
- ‘the supervisory role of the prescribed authority be clearly expressed’,
and
- ‘ASIO be required to provide a copy of the statement of facts and
grounds on which the warrant was issued to the prescribed authority
before questioning commences’ (recommendation 10).(51)
The Government accepted recommendation 10 in part.
Item 10 of Schedule 2 gives effect to the
first part of recommendation 10 by providing that the prescribed
authority must tell the person that their role includes:
- supervising the questioning of the person, and
- giving appropriate directions under new section 34K.(52)
The second part of recommendation 10 arose from the PJC’s view
that access to ASIO’s statement of facts and grounds supporting the issuing
of a warrant would assist the prescribed authority to exercise
their statutory responsibilities. This information is already made available
to the issuing authority when ASIO requests a Division 3 warrant.
However, the Government rejected the second part of recommendation
10 as ‘inappropriate.’ It said that prescribed authorities have sufficient
information to fulfil their role in supervising proceedings because they
are provided with a copy of the warrant.(53)
As stated above, the prescribed authority has general oversight of the
questioning process. Division 3, Part III also provides additional layers
of oversight and complaint mechanisms through the IGIS and the Commonwealth
Ombudsman.
The IGIS is an independent statutory authority whose mandate includes
ensuring that Australia’s intelligence agencies (including ASIO) comply
with the law and Ministerial guidelines, and act with propriety and respect
for human rights.
The IGIS plays a particularly important role under Division 3, Part III
of the ASIO Act because he or she can attend questioning sessions, communicate
any concerns about impropriety or illegality to the prescribed authority,
and investigate complaints from the subjects of warrants. Further, ASIO
must provide the IGIS with draft requests for warrants, any warrants issued,
copies of any video recordings of questioning and statements detailing
any seizures, taking into custody or detention.
As stated earlier, police (including the AFP) have a variety of powers
and functions under Division 3, Part III. A person who wants to make a
complaint about the conduct of the AFP (as distinct from ASIO) can go
to the Commonwealth Ombudsman.
Division 3, Part III currently provides that a person who is detained
under a warrant must be given facilities for contacting the IGIS or the
Ombudsman should they wish to do so.(54) A person who is subject
to a questioning-only warrant can contact the IGIS or Ombudsman
outside the questioning procedure.
Evidence was given to the PJC that a person who had been the subject
of a questioning-only warrant had requested that questioning cease
so they could contact the IGIS but this request was denied, as was their
request for a telephone. As a result, the PJC recommended that:
- subjects of questioning-only warrants have a clear right of access
to the IGIS or Ombudsman and be provided with reasonable facilities
to do so
- there be explicit provision for a prescribed authority to suspend
questioning to facilitate access to the IGIS or Ombudsman (recommendation
11).
The Government accepted recommendation 11. It commented:
While there are already clear provisions in the legislation
relating to the making of complaints in the case of detention, the Government
considers that provisions could be inserted into the ASIO Act to further
clarify the ability to make complaints. These provisions would enhance
the requirements to inform a subject of their capacity to make, and
facilitate the making of, complaints particularly in the questioning-only
warrant context.(55)
Item 13 of Schedule 2 provides that if a person who is appearing
for questioning before a prescribed authority under a Division 3 warrant
indicates that they want to make a complaint to the IGIS or the Commonwealth
Ombudsman and requests facilities for making the complaint, then the prescribed
authority can defer questioning and the person must be given facilities
for making the complaint.
As things stand, a person held under a detention warrant
must be allowed to contact their lawyer of choice, unless such
contact would alert a person involved in a terrorism offence that the
offence is being investigated or would result in records being destroyed.
If a person is denied contact with their first lawyer of choice, they
must be permitted to contact another lawyer of choice, who can be excluded
on the same grounds. If a person does not identify a lawyer of choice,
there is no requirement that one be provided for them.
If a person is the subject of a questioning-only warrant or is
the subject of a questioning-only warrant but is later detained
by order of a prescribed authority, there is no statutory ‘right’ to contact
a lawyer of choice.
In its report on the 2002 Bill,
the PJC recommended that a person’s lawyers should be entitled to be present
throughout questioning proceedings.(56) The PJC considered
this issue again during its 2005 review. It found no evidence that the
current practice of permitting contact with a lawyer had resulted in difficulties
or frustrated the questioning process. The Committee also pointed to the
examination regime in the Australian Crime Commission Act 2002,
which provides that a person’s lawyer cannot be excluded from proceedings.
The PJC remarked that it was not aware of ACC proceedings being frustrated
as a result. In this regard, Parliament may also wish to note the Law
Enforcement Integrity Commissioner Bill 2006, which is currently before
the House of Representatives. Like the Australian Crime Commission, the
Integrity Commissioner will be able to exercise coercive powers. The Commissioner
must allow the lawyer for a person giving evidence to be present when
evidence is given.(57)
The PJC recommended that:
- a person who is the subject of a questioning-only warrant
have a statutory right to consult a lawyer of choice
- a lawyer be entitled to be present during the questioning process
and only be excluded where there are substantial reasons to believe
that the person or their conduct may pose a threat to national security
(recommendation 4).
The Government accepted recommendation 4 in part, remarking that:
- the limitations that apply to contacting a lawyer under
a detention warrant should not apply to a person who is
the subject of a questioning-only warrant
- imitations on contact should apply where
a person is detained or where a person originally subject
to a questioning-only warrant is later detained by order
of a prescribed authority
- there should not be any requirement for a lawyer to be present
during questioning because it might delay questioning in the face of
an imminent terrorist attack and because not all subjects might want
a lawyer present.
Item 5 of Schedule 2 provides that the Attorney-General must ensure
that a request for a questioning-only warrant permits the
person to contact a single lawyer of choice at any time that the person
is appearing for questioning and at any time that the person is in detention.
In relation to a person in detention, contact can only occur after the
person has told the prescribed authority the identity of the lawyer they
wish to contact and a person exercising authority under the warrant has
had an opportunity to object (new subsection 34D(4)).
Item 6 similarly amends new section 34E in relation to
questioning-only warrants that are issued.
The amendments made by items 5 and 6 are subject to new section
34ZO (existing section 34TA) under which a person can be denied contact
with their lawyer of choice if that might alert a person involved in a
terrorism offence or result in evidence being destroyed.
Item 21 provides the prescribed authority may prevent the lawyer
for the subject of a detention warrant attending questioning if satisfied
that a person involved in terrorism may be alerted or evidence may be
destroyed.
Division 3, Part III enables lawyers to advise their clients during breaks
in questioning but prevents them taking an active part in the questioning
process except to ask for clarification of an ambiguous question. Lawyers
can be removed for unduly disrupting the questioning procedure by order
of the prescribed authority.
The PJC heard evidence that lawyers and the subjects of warrants have
been excluded when the prescribed authority is considering a request for
an extension of questioning time. The IGIS’s submission to the PJC also
commented on the effects of current restrictions on legal representation:
The subjects of section 34D warrants, as opposed to their
legal representatives, are able to raise questions directly with the
Prescribed Authority, but not surprisingly can sometimes have difficulty
in fully expressing their point.(58)
The IGIS concluded:
I would suggest that there should be clearer authority
in the ASIO Act for legal representatives to address the Prescribed
Authority, at least on some matters: and that in conjunction with another
change [the separation of ‘questioning time’ and ‘procedural time’]
this would not risk disruption to the questioning itself.
The PJC recommended that the Act be amended so that individuals can make
representations through their lawyer to the prescribed authority (recommendation
5).
The Government accepted recommendation 5 in part. It agreed that
a lawyer should be entitled to address the prescribed authority during
procedural time. However, it took the view that lawyers should
not be able to intervene during questioning. This, said the Government,
would prevent the process becoming adversarial and ensure that questioning
achieves its aim of gathering information.
Item 24 of Schedule 2 provides that, during breaks in questioning,
a lawyer may ask to address the prescribed authority. It is then up to
the prescribed authority to approve or refuse a request.
In general, a person who is the subject of a Division 3, Part III warrant
cannot be questioned for more than a total of 24 hours. An exception exists
if the person has an interpreter. In this case, questioning cannot exceed
a total of 48 hours. Within these limits, ‘questioning time’ can occur
in blocks of up to eight hours in the case of adults and two hours in
the case of children.
The PJC recommended an amendment to clearly distinguish procedural time
from questioning time. Such an amendment, said the PJC would:
- clarify that certain things eg explaining the warrant, changing audio
or video tapes or meeting the subject’s religious, personal or medical
needs do not form part of ‘questioning time’
- ensure greater opportunity for lawyers to raise procedural and substantive
issues during procedural time (recommendation 6)
The Government accepted recommendation 6. Item
17 of Schedule 2 provides for the calculation of ‘procedural
time’. This time includes time taken to explain the warrant to the subject,
any time during which the prescribed authority has deferred questioning
to enable recording equipment to be changed or a complaint to be made;
and time that enables the subject to contact a lawyer, receive medical
attention, engage in religious practices, rest or recuperate. It will
also include any other time determined by the prescribed authority.
A number of submissions to the PJC criticised provisions
in Division 3, Part III that enable ASIO and the AFP to monitor a detainee’s
contact with their lawyer. This, it was said, undermines lawyer-client
confidentiality and affects lawyers’ abilities to represent their clients.(59)
The PJC recommended that communications between lawyers
and their clients be recognised as confidential and that adequate facilities
be provided to ensure confidentiality in all places of questioning and
detention (recommendation 7).
The Government agreed to recommendation 7 in part.
It:
- agreed that the legislation should be amended to clarify that
communications between the subjects of questioning-only warrants
and their lawyers are not required to be made in a way that can be monitored
- did not agree the amendment should apply to communications
between subjects of detention warrants and their lawyers or
to communications between lawyers and the subjects of questioning-only
warrants who are later detained by order of a prescribed authority:
‘This is because there is a serious potential that disclosure of any
information could undermine the gathering of intelligence for a terrorism
investigation.’(60)
Item 22 of Schedule 2 gives effect to the Government’s
response.
In its submission to the PJC inquiry, the Law Institute of Victoria commented
on the importance of access to judicial review by the subjects of Division
3 warrants:
In cases of preventive detention where detention is ordered
by the Executive and a decision rests solely with administrative or
ministerial authority alone, … the most important right is for a person
to be able to challenge the lawfulness of their detention.(61)
At present, Division 3, Part III simply requires a prescribed authority
to inform the subject of a Division 3 warrant that they ‘may seek from
a federal court a remedy relating to the warrant or the treatment of the
person in connection with the warrant.’(62) The Law Institute
of Victoria suggested that a specific reference to a person’s legal remedies
be included in Division 3, Part III and that it apply both to questioning
and to detention.
The PJC recommended that:
… in the absence of separate statutory right of judicial
review, … a note to s34E be adopted as a signpost to existing legal
bases for judicial review [recommendation 8].(63)
The Government accepted the recommendation. Item 11 of Schedule
2 inserts a note at the end of new section 34J of the ASIO
Act.(64) The note says that a person may be able to apply to
the Federal Court or the High Court for a remedy in relation to a warrant
or their treatment.
The PJC agreed with comments made by the IGIS that it is important for
the subjects of Division 3 warrants to be legally represented because
of the complexity of proceedings and the potentially serious consequences
of failure to comply with statutory requirements. It recommended that
reasonable financial assistance for legal representation be provided automatically
to all subjects of Division 3 warrants (recommendation 13).
The Government agreed in part. It responded:
At present all persons questioned or detained are automatically
eligible to apply for financial assistance under the Special Circumstances
Scheme of financial assistance. The Government does not agree to automatic
provision of assistance, but is prepared to put forward an amendment
to the Act to include a statutory right for a person who is questioned
under a warrant to apply for financial assistance.(65)
Item 30, Schedule 2 enables a person who is the subject
of a warrant to apply to the Minister for financial assistance. However,
such a person will not automatically be given reasonable financial assistance
for legal representation.
Division 3, Part III ceases operation on 23 July 2006. Provisions
for review and sunsetting were inserted into Division 3, Part III as a
result of the PJC’s inquiry into the Australian 2002 Bill.
In proposing a sunset clause in 2002, the PJC said:
It will be up to the Government of the day to argue for
the continuation of proposed Part III, Division 3 of the ASIO Act which
will be inserted by the Bill. The timing
of the Committee’s review will ensure that the Government could, if
necessary, prepare and introduce a replacement Bill
when the relevant part of the Act expires.(66)
In evidence given the PJC in 2005, ASIO, the Attorney-General’s
Department and the AFP argued against any further sunsetting and recommended
that the questioning and detention regime become a permanent part of Australia’s
counter-terrorism laws. According to these agencies, concerns about how
the powers would be used have proved to be unfounded, valuable information
has been obtained and concerns about terrorism are unlikely to abate.
The Attorney-General’s Department also raised questions
about a ‘sunset clause based review’. It regarded such a review as ‘resource
intensive’ and as having the potential to distract resources from protecting
the Australian community.(67) Its preference was to omit the
sunset clause and ‘instead rely on ongoing reviews [for example, by the
PJC] and reports to Parliament.’(68)
On the other hand, many submissions argued against renewing
the questioning and detention regime. For instance, it was said that the
threat level to Australia does
not justify the regime, existing powers of law enforcement agencies and
existing criminal laws are sufficient, and that the legislation is inconsistent
with democratic rights. Most agreed, however, that if Division 3, Part
III is to be re-enacted, it must be sunsetted and provide for PJC review.
On balance, the IGIS supported further sunsetting. In a
paper delivered in July 2005, he said:
The IGIS has also supported retention of a sunset clause
- having regard to the role detention has played historically in oppression
– but suggested that a six or even nine year point (with periodic reviews
by the [PJC] in the meantime) would be appropriate. It is the view of
the IGIS that current threats are not transitory, it can be very difficult
to collect intelligence on terrorist planning by more conventional means
and ASIO has been responsible in its use of the warrants to date.(69)
The PJC recommended the insertion of a new sunset clause
to come into effect on 22 November 2011. It also recommended that the
legislation be amended to require it to review the operations, effectiveness
and implications of Division 3, Part III and report to the Parliament
by 22 June 2011 (recommendation 19). This is a longer cycle of
review (5˝ years) than the present cycle (3 years).
The Government accepted the recommendation in
part. It agreed that there should be a sunset clause and further review
by the PJC. However, it rejected the PJC’s recommendation of 2011 and
opted instead for a date of 2016.
Item 32 of Schedule 2 provides that Division 3, Part
III ceases to have effect on 22 July 2016. Item 33 requires the
PJC to review the operation, effectiveness and implications of Division
3, Part III by 22 January 2016. The Committee must report its findings
to the Minister and, once cleared, to Parliament.
Concluding comments
The Concluding Comments section of this Digest deals with PJC recommendations
that were rejected by the Government. It also revisits some of the PJC
recommendations that were accepted in part by the Government and briefly
describes some other suggestions for amendment that emerged during the
course of the PJC’s inquiry.
Before agreeing that the Director-General of Security can
seek a Division 3 warrant from an issuing authority, the Attorney-General
must have reasonable grounds for believing that the warrant will substantially
assist the collection of intelligence that is important in relation to
a terrorism offence and that relying on other methods of intelligence
collection would be ineffective.
In contrast, the issuing authority need only check
that certain formalities have been satisfied and have reasonable grounds
to believe that the warrant will substantially assist the collection of
intelligence that is important in relation to a terrorism offence. ‘In
practice, the issuing authority is provided with the same draft warrant
material as the Attorney-General.’(70)
Having considered the evidence before it, the PJC concluded:
…there is a persuasive argument that, in the context
of extraordinary and coercive powers that are to be used as a measure
of last resort, the issuing authority should be independently satisfied
that other methods of collection would not be effective. This will require
ASIO to provide a factual basis to their claim that other methods of
intelligence gathering would not be effective. It will also act as a
strong safeguard against misuse of coercive questioning powers …(71)
The PJC recommended that the issuing authority be required
to be satisfied that other methods of intelligence gathering would not
be effective before issuing a warrant (recommendation 1).
The Government rejected the recommendation. It said
that issuing authorities are not in a position to make such an assessment.
This role, the Government said, is best fulfilled by the Attorney-General
who is briefed by the intelligence agencies. The Government said that
existing requirements for issuing a warrant were sufficient.
Parliament may wish to note that two Commonwealth statutes, which authorise
covert and intrusive activities require the issuing officer to make the
sort of assessment contemplated by the PJC. The Telecommunications
(Interception) Act 1979 permits law enforcement agencies to
obtain a telecommunications interception warrant from a judge or AAT member.
Among the things that the issuing officer needs to be satisfied of before
issuing the warrant is whether the information sought could be obtained
by alternative methods.(72) Under the Surveillance Devices
Act 2004, when deciding an application for a surveillance device warrant
from a law enforcement officer, the judge or AAT member must have
regard to ‘the existence of any alternative means of obtaining the evidence
or information sought to be obtained.’(73)
Further, ASIO has a range of covert and other methods of obtaining information.
Under Division 2 of the ASIO Act it can obtain warrants to use tracking
devices in relation to persons and objects, use listening devices, remotely
access computers, inspect postal articles and execute search warrants
on premises and computers. Under the Crimes Act 1914, ASIO officers
can be authorised to use assumed (ie false) identities. Under the Telecommunications
(Interception) Act, ASIO can obtain telecommunications interception warrants,
warrants for the collection of foreign intelligence, and can access stored
communications.(74) ASIO is also able to obtain warrants to
tap the phones of B-parties (ie non-suspects).(75)
The IGIS’s submission to the PJC raised the issue of expenses
that can be incurred by the subject of a Division 3 warrant. The IGIS
drew attention to the fact that the subjects of warrants may have difficulties
in obtaining leave from their employment given secrecy requirements in
the Act and because they will not know how long they will be absent. He
added that this situation may be compounded where a subject does not have
leave entitlements. The PJC identified other financial costs that may
flow to the subject of a warrant—such as loss of leave entitlements, and
costs associated with travel, child care etc.
The PJC recommended that the Commonwealth establish a scheme
for the payment of reasonable witness expenses (recommendation 14).
The Government rejected the recommendation ‘at this
stage’.(76) It said that there was ‘limited evidence of any
significant practical impact of questioning to date’ and noted the existence
of ex gratia payments.
Division 3, Part III contains two categories of non-disclosure
offence:
- while a warrant is in force, it is an offence to disclose
information indicating that a warrant has been issued or to disclose
a fact relating to the content of the warrant or the questioning or
detention of a person under the warrant. It is also an offence to disclose
‘operational information.’
- in the two years following the expiry of a warrant, it is
an offence to disclose ‘operational information.’
These offences will not be committed if the disclosure is
a ‘permitted disclosure.’ The maximum penalty for committing a non-disclosure
offence is 5 years imprisonment.
Division 3, Part III also contains criminal sanctions for officials who
contravene statutory safeguards (section 34NB). For instance, it is an
offence to refuse a detainee facilities for contacting the IGIS or Ombudsman
when the detainee requests them. Refusal to defer questioning, as required,
until an interpreter is present is also an offence, as is refusal to release
a person aged under 16 when ordered to do so by a prescribed authority.
The maximum penalty for these offences is 2 years imprisonment.
Some submissions to the PJC noted discrepancies in penalties
that apply to officials breaking statutory safeguards and others (like
journalists) who disclose ‘operational information’—up to 2 years imprisonment
for the former and up to 5 years imprisonment in the case of the latter.
The PJC recommended that the penalty for disclosure of ‘operational
information’ be similar to the maximum penalty for an official who contravenes
safeguards (recommendation 15).
The Government rejected this recommendation. It stated:
… it would not be appropriate to arbitrarily equate the
penalties for officials and subjects questioned under a warrant (and
other persons who disclosed information in contravention of the non-disclosure
obligations). The provisions are directed at entirely different circumstances.
A key element in the disclosure offences is that the information
is ‘operational information.’ ‘Operational information’ is defined as:
(a) information that … [ASIO] has or had;
(b) a source of information … that … [ASIO] has or had;
(c) an operational capability, method or plan of … [ASIO].
Fairfax Holdings and the Media, Entertainment and Arts Alliance
(MEAA) argued that the definition of ‘operational information’ is too
broad. In its submission, the MEAA suggested that the definition encompasses:
… almost anything that ASIO has done or is doing, or
has known or knows. It is hard to see what information or plans that
ASIO has that would not fall under this definition of “operational information”.
Thus this section effectively gags any debate about ASIO’s activities.(77)
The PJC recommended that consideration be given to redefining
‘operational information’ to reflect more clearly the operational concerns
and needs of ASIO (recommendation 16).
The Government rejected the recommendation. Among
other things, the Government said that ‘Redrafting for greater specificity
in the definition may adversely complicate and alter the scope of the
secrecy provision, while providing little more guidance to make a disclosure.’(78)
A person will not commit a disclosure offence if the disclosure
is a ‘permitted disclosure.’ ‘Permitted disclosures’ include disclosures
that occur in the course making or investigating a complaint to the IGIS
or Commonwealth Ombudsman and disclosures made to a lawyer for the purpose
of obtaining legal advice in connection with a warrant. ‘Permitted disclosures’
also include disclosures permitted by the Director-General of Security
or the Attorney-General and certain disclosures permitted by a prescribed
authority.(79)
The PJC heard evidence that the disclosure offences shield
ASIO’s operations from public scrutiny and accountability and intrude
into freedom of speech and the press. Evidence was also given to the PJC
of the subjects of ASIO warrants being unable to tell their employers
and family where they were and of support organisations being unable to
provide counselling or other assistance to the subject of ASIO warrants
because of prohibitions on the subject disclosing the existence of a warrant
or their treatment (while the warrant is in existence) or operational
information (during the term of the warrant and for another two years).
The PJC accepted that in some circumstances, strict prohibitions
on disclosure are necessary. However, it recommended the following changes
to the secrecy regime:
- that disclosures be permitted about the existence of questioning
warrants, and
- consideration be given to shifting the determination of the need
for greater non-disclosure to the prescribed authority (recommendation
17).
The Government rejected recommendation 17. It considers
that existing legislation is sufficiently flexible and that strict secrecy
needs to be observed when a warrant is in force so ASIO can carry out
its investigations effectively. It conceded, however, that in some situations
disclosure of the existence of a warrant before it expires would not harm
national security. It said that the ASIO Act could be amended so that
under the existing permitted disclosure regime, relevant decision-makers
are permitted to take certain factors into account (like a person’s family
and employment interests and the public interest) when deciding whether
to permit a particular disclosure.
Item 29 of Schedule 2 provides that, in deciding
whether to give permission for a disclosure, the prescribed authority,
Minister or Director-General must take into account a person’s family
and employment interests (to the extent that these are known), the public
interest and the risk to security if permission is given.
Section 94 of the ASIO Act places a number of reporting obligations on
ASIO. For example, the Director-General must report annually to the Minister
on the number of requests made for Division 3 warrants, the number of
warrants issued, the total number of questioning warrants, the total number
of detention warrants, the total number of hours each person appeared
for questioning before a prescribed authority, the total number of hours
each detainee spent in detention and the number of times each prescribed
authority had persons appearing before him or her for questioning.
The PJC reported community concern about ASIO’s lack of accountability.
It considered that ‘with increased powers, especially powers which infringe
significantly on individual liberties, there are increased responsibilities
for public accounting. And it recommended that ASIO include in its Annual
Report information about
- the number and length of questioning sessions within any total questioning
time for each warrant
- the number of formal complaints made to the IGIS, the Ombudsman or
appeals made to the Federal Court, and
- the number (if any) of charges laid as a result of warrants issued
and the nature of those charges (recommendation 18).
The PJC considered that this information should be readily available
without additional administrative burdens falling on ASIO. Indeed, examples
of the number and length of questioning sessions for two warrants are
provided on pages 17 and 18 of the PJC’s report. They provide important
information about the operation of the regime and whether the requirements
of Division 3 and the Protocol are being observed.
The Government rejected recommendation 18. In relation to:
- the number and length of questioning sessions, the Government
considered that the reporting requirements in section 94 already provide
‘ample information’
- complaints to the IGIS and Ombudsman and appeals to the Federal
Court, the Government said it was appropriate for those agencies,
rather than ASIO to report, and
- charges laid under the ASIO Act, the Government responded
that the purpose of Division 3, Part III is to gather intelligence not
prosecute offences so it would be ‘inappropriate and unnecessary’ to
include this information in ASIO’s Annual Report.
Regulation 3B of the ASIO Regulations 1980 prohibits the
disclosure of security information to a lawyer in relation to legal
proceedings connected with a warrant unless a lawyer has been security
cleared or the Secretary of the Attorney-General’s Department is satisfied
that giving access to the information would not prejudice national security
interests.(80)
During questioning under a Division 3 warrant, lawyers for
the subjects of warrants are given a copy of the warrant but do not have
access to material supporting the warrant. The PJC received evidence that
lack of access to this material makes it difficult to assess the relevance
of questions or test the reasonableness of directions given by the prescribed
authority.
The PJC recommended that regulation 3B be amended to allow
the Secretary to consider disclosing information that is not prejudicial
to national security to a lawyer during the questioning procedure
(recommendation 9).
The Government rejected this recommendation stating:
The Government considers that there is no need to extend
the Regulations to this situation. The Regulations assist in protecting
sensitive material in court proceedings relating to a warrant. In the
case of the questioning proceedings, if ASIO is requested to provide
a document to the subject or their lawyer because it may be relevant
to questioning, ASIO can already do so subject to national security
considerations. Involvement in another decision-making process would
unnecessarily slow and complicate the process.(81)
Many submissions to the PJC inquiry contained suggestions for amending
Division 3, Part III. Not all found favour with the Committee. It is not
possible for this Digest to analyse or even describe all of them. However,
Parliament may be interested in the following recommendations:
Professor George
Williams and Dr Ben
Saul from the University of New South Wales argued that
detention can only be justified when it is part of ‘a fair and independent
judicial process resulting from allegations of criminal conduct.’ As well
as being inconsistent with democratic and judicial principles, they also
regarded the detention provisions as constitutionally insecure. And, in
their view, the purposes of the detention regime (such as preventing a
person alerting others) could be achieved by less drastic means.
The Human Rights and Equal Opportunity Commission (HREOC) recommended
that the use of Division 3 warrants should be limited to ‘serious terrorism
offences.’ HREOC identified ‘lesser’ terrorism offences as offences that
do not involve direct harm or threats to life or property. As an example,
it pointed to the association offence in section 102.8 of the Commonwealth
Criminal Code.(82) Being a member of a proscribed organisation
is another status offence found in the Criminal Code.(83) New
offences of contravening control orders and preventative detention orders
are also ‘terrorism offences’.
However, the PJC took the view that it would be difficult to define ‘serious
terrorism offence.’ And the Attorney-General’s Department commented that
‘… there is no such thing as a non-serious terrorism offence’, that all
the offences are indictable and all carry heavy penalties.(84)
On the other hand, as some submissions pointed out, many new terrorism
offences have been added to the Criminal Code since the passage of the
Australian Security Intelligence Organisation Legislation Amendment
(Terrorism) Act 2003. As a result, the potential reach of Division
3, Part III has been significantly expanded.(85) Parliament
may also wish to note that a number of Commonwealth statutes use the expression
‘serious offence’. For instance, section 477.1 of the Criminal Code defines
‘serious offence’ as an offence that is punishable by imprisonment for
life or a period of 5 or more years. More relevantly, the Crimes Act uses
and defines the expression, ‘serious terrorism offence’, in relation to
certain special powers found in Part 4B of that Act. ‘Serious terrorism
offences’ include ‘a terrorism offence (other than offence against
section 102.8, Division 104 or Division 105 of the Criminal Code).’
Section 102.8 is the association offence. Division 104 and 105 contain
offences relating to control orders and preventative detention orders.(86)
The Public Interest Advocacy Centre suggested a requirement for applying
for or issuing a Division 3 warrant should be a reasonable suspicion of
an imminent terrorism offence involving material risk of serious physical
injury or serious property damage.(87)
In relation to this recommendation, the Attorney-General’s Department
commented:
… such suggestions miss the point of the regime. … ASIO
needs to use the powers not just when it knows there is an imminent
threat but also where it has reached a point where its capacity to penetrate
has been foiled.(88)
The PJC’s recommendations for review and sunsetting in 2011 were rejected
by the Government. Instead, the PJC is required to report by 22 January
2016. The legislation will cease operation on 22 July 2016.
This leaves a considerable period during which ASIO’s use of its exceptional
and secret powers under Division 3, Part III may largely be beyond the
reach of public scrutiny and systematic review of the sort that the PJC
carries out. If the non-disclosure offences in Division 3 remain in their
current form, it is true that they are ‘time-limited.’ However, warrant
action within two years of the next PJC inquiry will not be in the public
domain. And while the PJC has access to a wide range of classified and
other material, even its review is circumscribed as a result of statutory
restrictions on the Committee’s inquiry, hearing and reporting powers.
Additionally, the PJC relies on the willingness of intelligence agencies
like ASIO to co-operate with it. A potentially worrying development in
the course of its inquiry into Division 3, Part III was the denial of
the Committee’s request to access video tapes and transcripts of eight
Division 3 warrant questioning sessions.
It is also arguable that a sunset date of 2016 makes a fixture of legislation
that the PJC says ‘should not be seen as a permanent part of the Australian
legal landscape.’ Parliament may also wish to consider whether, if the
sunset date of 2016 is to be retained, the PJC should be required to review
the legislation more often than once in the period before sunsetting occurs—for
example, at 5 year intervals. Review at five yearly intervals may also
allay any concerns that ASIO’s extraordinary and secret powers might ‘slip,
in practice, into investigative and policing powers to be simply part
of ongoing policing operations.’(89) It would also take account
of the fact that not all Division 3 powers—in particular the power to
detain—had not been used at the time of the PJC’s 2005 review and that
Division 3 had only been in operation for two years prior to that review.
A fundamental issue raised by submissions to the PJC was whether Division
3, Part III should be re-enacted at all.(90) Intelligence and
law enforcement agencies and the Attorney-General’s Department argued
that Division 3 powers were a valuable part of Australia’s
counter-terrorism armoury and had been used judiciously and carefully.
The Australian Federal Police commented that ‘the questioning and detention
powers have been used appropriately by ASIO, that the powers have worked
well in practice and that ASIO still needs these powers to assist in the
collection of intelligence that is important to terrorism offences.’(91)
In evidence to the PJC, Dennis Richardson, the former Director-General
of Security, commented on the nature of the threat faced by Australia,
the usefulness of Division 3, Part III and the quality of the legislation—particularly
in terms of the balance between the powers conferred and individual rights
and freedoms; and the usefulness of the legislation. He drew the Committee’s
attention to the lengthy Parliamentary scrutiny that Division 3, Part
III had undergone, the fact that warrants are issued by an independent
judicial officer, and to the safeguards that were built into the regime.
In relation to safeguards, Mr Richardson
pointed to subjects’ access to lawyers, the use of an independent prescribed
authority to supervise questioning, the existence of complaints mechanisms
and requirements that questioning be videotaped. He described the terrorist
threat to Australia as ‘a long-term,
generational threat’, which requires legislation to be ‘in place to deal
with situations as they emerge and not to be reactive.’(92)
On the other hand, Parliament may wish to note the PJC’s statement that
it recommended ‘a range of additional measures if Division 3 of Part III
of the ASIO Act is to continue to have effect beyond 23 July 2006.’(93)
The Government did not accept PJC recommendations relating to ‘democratic
and liberal processes.’ Nor did it accept all of the recommendations for
additional safeguards for the subjects of Division 3 warrants. Should
the re-enactment of Division 3, Part III be contingent on the acceptance
of all the PJC’s recommendations, should the continuation of the legislation
be contingent on the acceptance of particular recommendations and if,
so, which recommendations?
Those who opposed the retention of Division 3 argued that it is disproportionate
to Australia’s security environment (there is no threat to the life of
the nation), that it violates the principle that non-suspects should not
be subject to detention or placed in ‘coercive circumstances’, and that
detention without trial is, arguably, unconstitutional. It was also suggested
that Division 3 contains inadequate safeguards for the protection of fundamental
liberties and inappropriately vests power in ASIO (a secret and largely
unaccountable organisation). Concerns about the potential ramifications
of anti-terrorism laws have also been expressed. Such concerns were succinctly
reflected in a recent paper by Justice Michael
Kirby. Writing in general terms about the response to
terrorism in a number of democracies, His Honour commented:
Responses to terrorism there must be. But those responses
should adhere to the rule of law and respect for fundamental human rights
and freedoms. Otherwise the terrorists win in their attempts to change
our societies. And that must not happen.(94)
- On 2 December 2005, the Parliamentary Joint Committee on ASIO, ASIS
and DSD became the Parliamentary Joint Committee on Intelligence and
Security.
- ASIO also has special powers under Division 2 of the ASIO Act.
- Other Bills in the package were the Security Legislation Amendment
(Terrorism) Bill 2002, the Suppression of the Financing of Terrorism
Bill 2002, the Border Security Legislation Amendment Bill 2002, the
Criminal Code Amendment (Anti-hoax and Other Measures) Bill 2002 and
the Criminal Code Amendment (Suppression of Terrorist Bombings) Bill
2002.
- Parliamentary Joint Committee on ASIO, ASIS and DSD, An Advisory
Report on the Australian Security Intelligence Organisation Legislation
Amendment (Terrorism) Bill 2002, 5 June 2002, p. 1.
- Parliamentary Joint Committee on ASIO, ASIS and DSD:
Interim Report on the Australian Security Intelligence Organisation
Legislation Amendment (Terrorism) Bill 2002, 3 May 2002 at http://www.aph.gov.au/house/committee/pjcaad/terrorbill2002/interim-rpt.pdf;
An Advisory Report on the Australian Security Intelligence Organisation
Legislation Amendment (Terrorism) Bill 2002, 5 June 2002 at
http://www.aph.gov.au/house/committee/pjcaad/terrorbill2002/terrorindex.htm.
Senate Legal and Constitutional Legislation Committee:
Inquiry into the Provisions of the Australian Security Intelligence
Organisation Legislation Amendment (Terrorism) Bill 2002, 18
June 2002
Senate Legal and Constitutional References Committee:
Inquiry into the Australian Security Intelligence Organisation
Legislation Amendment (Terrorism) Bill 2002, 3 December 2002 at:
http://www.aph.gov.au/senate/committee/legcon_ctte/completed_inquiries/2002-04/asio_2/report/contents.htm
- For a discussion of the features of each Bill
and the matters of disagreement between the Houses see:
- New warrants can be obtained if they meet the conditions set out in
subsection 34C(3D) and subsection 34D(1A) (new subsections 34F(6)
and 34G(2)). A further warrant cannot be issued if the person
is still being detained under an earlier warrant.
- However, there is no guarantee that issuing authorities must be drawn
from the ranks of the judiciary. See endnote 10.
- The Australian Passports (Transitionals and Consequentials) Act
2005 and the Intelligence Services Legislation Act 2005 made
minor changes. The Anti-terrorism Act (No. 3) 2004 requires a
person who is the subject of a request for a Division 3 warrant to surrender
all their passports (Australian and foreign) and makes it an offence
for such a person to leave Australia
without the permission of the Director-General of Security. The Anti-terrorism
Act (No. 2) 2005 provides that material seized under a Division
3 warrant or as the result of a detainee being strip-searched may be
retained for a reasonable time and can be kept if returning the material
would be prejudicial to national security. This Act also changes the
wording of the offence in section 34G of the ASIO Act. Section 34G creates
an offence of knowingly providing information that is false or misleading
in a material particular during questioning under a Division 3 warrant.
As a result of the 2005 amendments, this will not constitute an element
of the offence, which must be proved by the prosecution. Instead, the
defendant now bears an evidential burden in relation to whether the
information is false or misleading in a material particular.
- Issuing authorities are appointed from the ranks of consenting Federal
Magistrates and judges. Other classes of issuing authority may be prescribed
by regulation. See section 34AB, ASIO Act.
- Prescribed authorities are appointed from the ranks of former superior
court judges. If insufficient numbers are available, appointments are
made from the ranks of serving Supreme or District Court judges. If
there are still insufficient numbers, AAT Presidents and Deputy Presidents
can be appointed, so long as they are legally qualified. In all cases,
consent to appointment is required. See section 34B, ASIO Act.
- Division 3, Part III is not subject to statutory or constitutional
Bills of Rights, which exist in those other nations). For a contrary
view on whether the powers are unprecedented, see Submission No. 102
(Attorney-General’s Department).
- A person compelled to answer questions or produce documents under
Division 3, Part III has ‘use immunity’. This means that their evidence
cannot be used in any future prosecution against them. However, they
do not have ‘derivative use immunity.’ This means that any evidence
derived from answers they are compelled to give or documents
they are compelled to provide can be used to prosecute them.
- At the time this Digest was written those agencies were ASIO, ASIS,
the Defence Imagery and Geospatial Organisation, the Defence Intelligence
Organisation, the Defence Signals Directorate and the Office of National
Assessments.
- The Committee now has nine members.
- Margaret Swieringa,
‘Intelligence oversight and the War on Terrorism’, Paper presented to
the 2005 Australasian Study of Parliament Group Conference. TSPV means
‘Top Secret Positively Vetted.’
- Parliamentary Joint Committee on ASIO, ASIS and DSD, ASIO’s Questioning
and Detention Powers. Review of the Operation, Effectiveness and Implications
of Division 3 of Part III of the Australian Security Intelligence Organisation
Act 1979, November 2005, p. 107.
- PJC (2005), op. cit., p. ix.
- Submission No. 67 (Greg Carne),
p. 3. See also Submission No. 90 (Public Interest Advocacy Centre).
- See PJC (2005), op. cit., pp. 90-92.
- Bret Walker SC, Opinion,
29 April 2005 at: http://www.aph.gov.au/house/committee/pjcaad/asio_ques_detention/walker_opinion.pdf
- PJC (2005), op. cit., p. 13.
- See Ian Carnell (IGIS)
& Neville Bryan
(Office of the IGIS), ‘Watching the watchers. How the Inspector-General
of Intelligence and Security helps safeguard the rule of law’, modified
version of a paper given at the Safeguarding Australia 2005 Conference,
Canberra, July 2005, pp. 12-13. See also Submission No. 75, (Inspector-General
of Intelligence and Security), paras. 66 and 67.
- PJC (2005), op. cit., p. 14.
- ‘In relation to the first eight questioning warrants, an interpreter
was requested on four occasions and granted on one.’ PJC (2005), op.
cit., p. 19.
- Three of these people were the subject of questioning warrants. The
fourth person was not.
- PJC (2005), op. cit., p. 24.
- A copy of the Protocol can be found at: http://www.aph.gov.au/house/committee/pjcaad/asio_ques_detention/report/appendixe.pdf
- Legislative instruments must be registered on the Federal Register
of Legislative Instruments, a publicly accessible online database.
- Section 34L, ASIO Act (new section 34ZB). Strip searches can
only be carried out with the permission of the prescribed authority
and in accordance with the rules set out in section 34M (new section
34ZC).
- Section 34JB, ASIO Act (new section 34V).
- Section 34JA, ASIO Act (new section 34U).
- Section 34DA, ASIO Act (new section 34H).
- Sub-paragraph 34E(1)(e)(ii).
- Paragraph 34F(9)(e).
- See submission no. 49 (Commonwealth Ombudsman), p. 3.
- Evidence to the PJC. See PJC (2005), op. cit., p. 14.
- PJC (2005), op. cit., p. 63.
- em 4 of Schedule 2 enables a person to complain to a ‘complaints
agency’ in relation to the police force of the State or Territory. Item
14 defines a ‘complaints agency’ as an Ombudsman, agency or body
established under State or Territory law that can investigate complaints
against State or Territory police.
- PJC (2005), op. cit, p. 42.
- Government Response, op. cit., p. 1.
- Submission No. 84 (Attorney-General’s Department) p. 13.
- Subsection 34J, ASIO Act. See section 34ZE, ASIO Act in relation
to the prescribed authority’s role in relation to children.
- Sections 34M and 34N, ASIO Act.
- Section 34R, ASIO Act.
- Paragraph 34K(1)(f), ASIO Act.
- Section 34R, ASIO Act.
- Section 34ZB, ASIO Act.
- Subsection 34ZQ(5), ASIO Act.
- Subsection 34ZQ(9), ASIO Act.
- PJC (2005), op. cit., p. 60.
- New section 34K deals with directions made by the prescribed authority
in relation to detention or further appearance and directions about
communications while in custody or detention.
- Government Response to the Parliamentary Joint Committee on Intelligence
and Security, Report on the Operation, Effectiveness and Implications
of Division 3 of Part III of the Australian Security Intelligence Organisation
Act 1979, March 2006.
- Paragraph 34F(9)(c), ASIO Act.
- Government Response, op. cit., p. 4.
- PJC (2002) op. cit., recommendation 6.
- Paragraph 86(2)(a), Law Enforcement Integrity Commissioner Bill 2006.
- Submission No. 75 (Inspector-General of Intelligence and Security),
paras. 33 and 35.
- See, for example, Submission No. 35 (Joo-Cheong Tham & Stephen
Sempill); Submission No. 55 (Gilbert
+ Tobin Centre of Public Law); Submission No. 67 (Greg
Carne).
- Government Response, op. cit., p. 3.
- Submission No. 82 (Law Institute of Victoria),
p. 15.
- The prescribed authority must so inform the subject of the warrant
when they first appear for questioning and then at least once in every
24-hour period during which questioning occurs.
- PJC (2005), op. cit., p. 57.
- New section 34J sets out the information the prescribed authority
must give to a person when they first appear for questioning.
- Government Response, op. cit., p. 5.
- PJC (2002), op. cit., p. 59.
- Submission No. 102 (Attorney-General’s Department), p. 10.
- ibid, p. 11.
- Carnell & Bryan, op. cit., p. 13.
- Submission No. 102 (Attorney-General’s Department), p. 20.
- PJC (2005), op. cit., p. 37.
- For example, paragraph 45(e), Telecommunications (Interception)
Act 1979.
- Paragraph 16(2)(d), Surveillance Devices Act 2004.
- Such as emails, text messages and voicemail.
- See Telecommunications (Interception) Amendment Act 2006,
which received Royal Assent on 3 May 2006. Schedule 2 (B-party intercepts)
commenced on 4 May 2006.
- Government Response, op. cit., p. 5.
- Submission No. 65 (Media, Entertainment and Arts Alliance), p. 3.
- Government Response, op. cit., p. 6.
- The disclosures that can be permitted by a prescribed authority are
specified in subsection 34VAA(6) (new subsection 34ZS(6)).
- Section 34VA of the ASIO Act provides that regulations can prohibit
or regulate access to security information by lawyers acting for the
subject of a Division 3 warrant in legal proceedings (such as proceedings
for a remedy relating to a warrant or the treatment of a person in connection
with a warrant). Section 34VA is re-numbered as section 34ZT by the
Bill).
- Government Response, op. cit., p. 4.
- This offence carries a maximum penalty of three years imprisonment.
- This offence carries a maximum penalty of 10 years imprisonment.
- Submission No. 102 (Attorney-General’s Department), p. 12.
- See Submission No. 67 (Greg Carne),
pp. 2-3.
- These provisions were inserted by the Anti-terrorism Act (No.
2) 2005 and post-date the Attorney-General’s Department submission.
- Submission No. 90 (Public Interest Advocacy Centre).
- Submission No. 102 (Attorney-General’s Department), pp. 12-13.
- PJC (2005), op. cit., p. 25.
- See Submission No. 35 (Joo-Cheong Tham & Stephen Sempill); Submission
No. 42 (National Human Rights Network, National Association of Community
Legal Centres); Submission No. 47 (Victoria Legal Aid); Submission No.
55 (Gilbert + Tobin Centre of Public Law—recommending that if Division
3, Part III is re-enacted, the detention provision should not be included);
Submission No. 65 (Media, Entertainment and Arts Alliance); Submission
No. 79 (Liberty Victoria); Submission No. 81 (Amnesty International
Australia); Submission No. 86 (Patrick Emerton); Submission No. 88 (Australian
Muslim Civil Rights Advocacy Network); Submission No. 89 (Islamic Council
of New South Wales); Submission No. 90 (Public Interest Advocacy Centre).
- Submission No. 83 (Australian Federal Police), p. 2.
- PJC, Public Hearing, 19 May 2005, pp. 2-3. Evidence given by Dennis
Richardson (former Director-General of Security).
- PJC, op. cit., p. ix.
- Michael Kirby AC CMG, ‘Terrorism and the democratic response 2004’,
(2005) 28(1) University of New South Wales Law Journal,
pp. 221-244 at p. 244.
Jennifer Norberry
5 May 2006
Bills Digest Service
Information and Research Services
This paper has been prepared to support the work of the Australian Parliament
using information available at the time of production. The views expressed
do not reflect an official position of the Information and Research Service,
nor do they constitute professional legal opinion.
IRS staff are available to discuss the paper's contents
with Senators and Members and their staff but not with members of the
public.
ISSN 1328-8091
© Commonwealth of Australia 2006
Except to the extent of the uses permitted under the Copyright Act
1968, no part of this publication may be reproduced or transmitted
in any form or by any means, including information storage and retrieval
systems, without the prior written consent of the Parliamentary Library,
other than by members of the Australian Parliament in the course of their
official duties.
Published by the Parliamentary Library, 2006.

|